AIPMT 2010 (Mains)

A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest, in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the estimation of g is

1. e2 - e1
2. e1 + 2e2
3. e1 + e2
4. e1 - 2e2

The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is

1. 60
2. 15
3. 30
4. 45

A particle moves in x-y plane according to rule x = a t and y = a t. The particle follows

1. an elliptical path
2. a circular path
3. a parabolic path
4. a straight line path inclined equally to x and y-axes

A particle of mass M, starting from rest, undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is

1. MV2T
2. 12 MV2T2
3. MV2T2
4. 12 MV2T

From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of mass M and radius R3 is removed concentrically. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through its centre is

1. 409MR2
2. MR2
3. 4MR2
4. 49MR2

A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder, both of the same mass and same external diameter are released from the same height at the same time on an inclined plane. Both roll down without slipping. Which one will reach the bottom first?

1. Both together only when angle of inclination of plane is 45
2. Both together
3. Hollow cylinder
4. Solid cylinder

A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with constant angular velocity . Two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring now rotates with angular velocity given by

1. (M+2m) 2m
2. 2M M+2m
3. (M+2m) M
4. M M+2m

The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2 (R2 > R1) is

1. GmM ( 1R12- 1R22 )
2. GmM ( 1R1- 1R2 )
3. 2GmM ( 1R1- 1R2 )
4. 12GmM ( 1R1- 1R2 )

The dependence of acceleration due to gravity g on the distance r from the centre of the earth, assumed to be a sphere of radius R of uniform density is as shown in figures below [figure] The correct figure is

1. (4)
2. (1)
3. (2)
4. (3)

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?

1. D and A only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. C and D only

If cp and cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M, then

1. cp - cv = RM2
2. cp - cv = R
3. cp - cv = RM
4. cp - cv = MR

A monatomic gas at pressure P1 and volume V1 is compressed adiabatically to 18th of its original volume. What is the final pressure of the gas?

1. 64P1
2. P1
3. 16P1
4. 32P1

Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and -Q face each other at a certain distance between them. If the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the plates will

1. become zero
2. increase
3. decrease
4. remain same

The electric field at a distance 3R2 from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance R2 from the centre of the sphere is

1. zero
2. E
3. E2
4. E3

A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each of radius R, one lying in the x-y plane and the other in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is i. The resultant magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at their common centre is

1. 0 i2 2R
2. 0 i2R
3. 0 i4R
4. 0 i 2R

A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 10-4 m2 carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 10-2 tesla making an angle of 30 with the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be

1. 3 10-3 N m
2. 1.5 10-3 N m
3. 1.5 10-2 N m
4. 3 10-2 N m

A particle having a mass of 10-2 kg carries a charge of 5 10-8 C. The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of 105 m s-1 in the presence of electric field E and magnetic field B. To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible ?

1. A and C only
2. C and D only
3. B and C only
4. B and D only

The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is

1. much greater than one
2. 1
3. between zero and one
4. equal to zero

Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centers at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure [figure] The force on the charge Q is

1. zero
2. directed along OP
3. directed along PO
4. directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the condenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current through the inductor when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is

1. ( C(V1-V2)2L ) 12
2. C (V12-V22 )L
3. C (V12+V22 )L
4. ( C (V12-V22 )L ) 12

The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by E = 10 (107t + kx ) j V/m, where t and x are in seconds and metres respectively. It can be inferred that Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?

1. C and D only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. A and C only

The speed of light in media M1 and M2 are 1.5 108 m/s and 2.0 108 m/s respectively. A ray of light enters from medium M1 to M2 at an incidence angle i. If the ray suffers total internal reflection, the value of i is

1. Equal to -1 ( 23 )
2. Equal to or less than -1 ( 35 )
3. Equal to or greater than -1 ( 34 )
4. Less than -1 ( 23 )

A ray of light is incident on a 60 prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first face (i.e., incident face) of the prism is

1. zero
2. 30
3. 45
4. 60

When monochromatic radiation of intensity I falls on a metal surface, the number of photoelectrons and their maximum kinetic energy are N and T respectively. If the intensity of radiation is 2I, the number of emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic energy are respectively

1. N and 2T
2. 2N and T
3. 2N and 2T
4. N and T

The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1) and the photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is 5.1 eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be (the energy of the electron in nth state En = - 13.6n2 eV)

1. 5.1 V
2. 12.1 V
3. 17.2 V
4. 7 V

The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV, respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus the energy released in the fusion is

1. 23.6 MeV
2. 2.2 MeV
3. 28.0 MeV
4. 30.2 MeV

The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are as given. [figure] The logic gate is

1. NOR gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. NAND gate

The decay constant of a radioisotope is . If A1 and A2 are its activities at times t1 and t2 respectively, the number of nuclei which have decayed during the time (t1 - t2)

1. A1t1 - A2t2
2. A1 - A2
3. (A1 - A2)/
4. (A1 - A2)

For transistor action Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?

1. D and A
2. A and B
3. B and C
4. C and D

A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be (h = 6.6 10-34 J s)

1. 6.6 10-32 m
2. 6.6 10-34 m
3. 1.0 10-35 m
4. 1.0 10-32 m

Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is

1. Mg < Ca < Cl < P
2. Cl < P < Mg < Ca
3. P < Cl < Ca < Mg
4. Ca < Mg < P < Cl

Among the following which one has the highest cation to anion size ratio?

1. CsI
2. CsF
3. LiF
4. NaF

In which of the following molecules the central atom does not have sp3 hybridization?

1. CH4
2. SF4
3. BF4-
4. NH4+

Some of the properties of the two species, NO3- and H3O+ are described below. Which one of them is correct?

1. Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures.
2. Isostructural with same hybridization for the central atom.
3. Isostructural with different hybridization for the central atom.
4. Similar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures.

Match List I (Equations) with List II (Type of processes) and select the correct option.

1. A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)
2. A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)
3. A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
4. A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii)

Three moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be

1. infinite
2. 3 Joules
3. 9 Joules
4. zero

For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of H and S are 40.63 kJ mol-1 and 108.8 J K-1 mol-1, respectively. The temperature when Gibbs energy change ( G) for this transformation will be zero, is

1. 273.4 K
2. 393.4 K
3. 373.4 K
4. 293.4 K

The following two reactions are known Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g); H = -26.8 kJ FeO(s) + CO(g) Fe(s) + CO2(g); H = -16.5 kJ The value of H for the following reaction Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) 2FeO(s) + CO2(g) is

1. +10.3 kJ
2. -43.3 kJ
3. -10.3 kJ
4. +6.2 kJ

The reaction, 2A(g) + B(g) 3C(g) + D(g) is begun with the concentrations of A and B both at an initial value of 1.00 M. When equilibrium is reached, the concentration of D is measured and found to be 0.25 M. The value for the equilibrium constant for this reaction is given by the expression

1. [(0.75)3(0.25)] [(1.00)2(1.00)]
2. [(0.75)3(0.25)] [(0.50)2(0.75)]
3. [(0.75)3(0.25)] [(0.50)2(0.25)]
4. [(0.75)3(0.25)] [(0.75)2(0.25)]

Which of the following species is not electrophilic in nature?

1. Cl
2. BH3
3. H3 O
4. NO2

The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH=CHC CH is

1. pent-4-yn-2-ene
2. pent-3-en-1-yne
3. pent-2-en-4-yne
4. pent-1-yn-3-ene

Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is most stable?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

In the following reaction C6H5CH2Br [2. H3O+]1. Mg, ether X, the product 'X' is

1. C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5
2. C6H5CH2OH
3. C6H5CH3
4. C6H5CH2CH2C6H5

When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces

1. 2-iodopropane
2. allyl iodide
3. propene
4. glycerol triiodide

Following compounds are given (i) CH3CH2OH (ii) CH3COCH3 (iii) CH3- CH3 |CHOH (iv) CH3OH Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform?

1. (i), (iii) and (iv)
2. Only (ii)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. (i) and (ii)

Match the compounds given in List-I with their characteristic reactions given in List-II. Select the correct option.

1. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
2. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
3. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
4. A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Fructose reduces Tollens' reagent due to

1. asymmetric carbons
2. primary alcoholic group
3. secondary alcoholic group
4. enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base

Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of Al2(SO4)3. Given that Al3+ and SO42- are the equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of the respective ions?

1. 2 Al3+ + 3 SO42-
2. Al3+ + SO42-
3. ( Al3+ + SO42-) 6
4. 13 Al3+ + 12 SO42-

Consider the following relations for emf of an electrochemical cell (i) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) − (Reduction potential of cathode) (ii) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode) (iii) EMF of cell = (Reduction potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode) (iv) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) − (Oxidation potential of cathode) Which of the above relations are correct?

1. (iii) and (i)
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (iii) and (iv)
4. (ii) and (iv)

The rate of the reaction, 2NO + Cl2 2NOCl is given by the rate equation rate = k[NO]2[Cl2]. The value of the rate constant can be increased by

1. increasing the temperature
2. increasing the concentration of NO
3. increasing the concentration of the Cl2
4. doing all of these.

How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10?

1. 6
2. 4
3. 2
4. 5

Match List-I (substances) with List-II (processes) employed in the manufacture of the substances and select the correct option.

1. (A) (i); (B) (iv); (C) (ii); (D) (iii)
2. (A) (i); (B) (ii); (C) (iii); (D) (iv)
3. (A) (iv); (B) (iii); (C) (ii); (D) (i)
4. (A) (iv); (B) (ii); (C) (iii); (D) (i)

Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids?

1. 4
2. 2
3. 5
4. 3

The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03 m3 vessel at 129 is (Atomic masses : C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1)

1. 215216 Pa
2. 13409 Pa
3. 41648 Pa
4. 31684 Pa

Some statements about heavy water are given below: Which of the above statements are correct?

1. (i) and (ii)
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (i) and (iii)

The compound A on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain B. Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed which is recovered in the solid form. Solid C on gentle heating gives back A. The compound is

1. CaCO3
2. Na2CO3
3. K2CO3
4. CaSO4 2H2O

Select the correct combination of the statements (i – iv) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms. (i) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas. (ii) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen. (iii) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesise cellulose from glucose. (iv) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen. The correct statements are

1. (ii) and (iii)
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
4. (i), (ii) and (iv)

Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by

1. Alternaria solani
2. Ustilago nuda
3. Puccinia graminis
4. Xanthomonas oryzae

Which one of the following is monoecious?

1. Marchantia
2. Cycas
3. Pinus
4. Date palm

Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into the flat green and succulent structure?

1. Opuntia
2. Casuarina
3. Hydrilla
4. Acacia

The correct floral formula of soyabean is

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Consider the following four statements (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) and select the right option for two correct statements. Statements : (i) In vexillary aestivation, the large posterior petal is called standard, two lateral ones are wings and two small anterior petals are termed keel. (ii) The floral formula for Liliaceae is [figure] (iii) In pea flower the stamens are monadelphous. (iv) The floral formula for Solanaceae is [figure] The correct statements are

1. (i) and (iii)
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (iii) and (iv)

Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong?

1. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity.
2. Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are effective even at temperatures 80 –90 .
3. Enzymes are highly specific.
4. Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids.

The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one of the four options (1 – 4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly? [figure]

1. array|l|l|l|l| A & B & C & D \ Potential energy & Transition state & Activation energy & Activation energy without enzyme \ array
2. array|l|l|l|l| A & B & C & D \ Transition state & Potential energy & Activation energy without enzyme & Activation energy with enzyme \ array
3. array|l|l|l|l| A & B & C & D \ Potential energy & Transition state & Activation energy with enzyme & Activation energy without enzyme \ array
4. array|l|l|l|l| A & B & C & D \ Activation energy with enzyme & Transition state & Activation energy without enzyme & Potential energy \ array

Read the following four statements, (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) and select the right option having both correct statements. Statements : (i) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PS I only. (ii) Only PS I is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation. (iii) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2. (iv) Stroma lamellae lack PS II as well as NADP reductase.

1. (ii) and (iv)
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (iii) and (iv)

Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of

1. potato
2. wheat
3. sugarcane
4. mustard

One of the commonly used plant growth hormones in tea plantations is

1. ethylene
2. abscisic acid
3. zeatin
4. indole-3-acetic acid

Root development is promoted by

1. abscisic acid
2. auxin
3. gibberellin
4. ethylene

Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs by

1. stolon
2. offset
3. runner
4. sucker

ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles and shows co-dominance. There are six genotypes. How many phenotypes in all are possible -

1. five
2. four
3. three
4. six

Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character – [figure]

1. The trait under study could not be colourblindness
2. The female parent is heterozygous
3. The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character
4. The male parent is homozygous dominant

A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with the recessive parent in order to know its genotype is called -

1. Dihybrid cross
2. Back cross
3. Monohybrid cross
4. Test cross

In Antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of the two plants used for hybridization? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and White by rr genes -

1. rrrr
2. rr
3. Rr
4. RR

The 3'-5' phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join -

1. One nucleotide with another nucleotide
2. One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
3. One nucleoside with another nucleoside
4. One DNA strand with the other DNA strand

The lac operon consists of -

1. Three regulatory genes and three structural genes
2. Four regulatory genes only
3. Two regulatory genes and two structural genes
4. One regulatory gene and three structural genes

In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the -

1. Dictyosomes
2. Ribosomes
3. Nucleus
4. ER

Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?

1. Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides
2. Centromere is found in animal cells, which produces aster during cell division
3. The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell
4. DNA consists of a core of eight histones

An example of endomycorrhiza is -

1. Nostoc
2. Rhizobium
3. Glomus
4. Agaricus

Which one of the following is most appropriately defined?

1. Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it.
2. Host is an organism which provides food to another organism.
3. Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited whereas the other is unaffected
4. Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for food.

Which of the following representations shows the pyramid of numbers in a forest ecosystem? [figure]

1. B
2. A
3. D
4. C

The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states?

1. Uttarakhand
2. Assam
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh

Transport of food material in higher plants takes place through -

1. Sieve elements
2. Transfusion tissue
3. Companion cells
4. Tracheids

An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called -

1. Cytoskeleton
2. Endoplasmic Reticulum
3. Thylakoid
4. Plasmalemma

Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii) given along with – [Figure] Components : (i) Cristae of mitochondria (ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria (iii) Cytoplasm (iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (vi) Mitochondrial matrix (vii) Cell vacuole (viii) Nucleus The correct components are :

1. (A) (v), (B) (iv), (C) (viii), (D) (iii)
2. (A) (i), (B) (iv), (C) (viii), (D) (vi)
3. (A) (v), (B) (i), (C) (iii), (D) (ii)
4. (A) (vi), (B) (v), (C) (iv), (D) (vii)

Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options all the four parts A, B, C and D are correct? [Figure]

1. A Collar, B Tail fibres, C Head, D Sheath
2. A Tail fibres, B Head, C Sheath, D Collar
3. A Head, B Sheath, C Collar, D Tail fibres
4. A Sheath, B Collar, C Head, D Tail fibres

Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items A, B, C and D are correct? [Figure]

1. (A) Funaria, (B) Adiantum, (C) Salvinia, (D) Riccia
2. (A) Equisetum, (B) Ginkgo, (C) Selaginella, (D) Lycopodium
3. (A) Chara, (B) Marchantia, (C) Fucus, (D) Pinus
4. (A) Selaginella, (B) Equisetum, (C) Salvinia, (D) Ginkgo

Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Study the pathway given below: [figure] In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated?

1. A Fixation, B Transamination, C Regeneration
2. A Decarboxylation, B Reduction, C Regeneration
3. A Carboxylation, B Decarboxylation, C Reduction
4. A Fixation, B Decarboxylation, C Regeneration

Examine the figures (A–D) given below and select the right option, in which all the four structures A, B, C and D are identified correctly. [Figure]

1. A Offset, B Antheridiophore, C Antipodals, D Oogonium
2. A Rhizome, B Sporangiophore, C Polar cell, D Globule
3. A Sucker, B Seta, C Megaspore mother cell, D Gemma cup
4. A Runner, B Archegoniophore, C Synergid, D Antheridium

Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of symbiotic nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following statements is not correct during this process of nitrogen fixation?

1. Leghaemoglobin scavenges oxygen and is pinkish in colour.
2. Nodules act as sites for nitrogen fixation.
3. The enzyme nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3.
4. Nitrogenase is insensitive to oxygen.

Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words for all the four blanks A, B, C and D. [figure]

1. array|l|l|l|l| A & B & C & D \ Nitrification & Ammonification & Animals & Plants \ array
2. array|l|l|l|l| A & B & C & D \ Denitrification & Ammonification & Plants & Animals \ array
3. array|l|l|l|l| A & B & C & D \ Nitrification & Denitrification & Animals & Plants \ array
4. array|l|l|l|l| A & B & C & D \ Denitrification & Nitrification & Plants & Animals \ array

When domestic sewage mixes with river water

1. The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%
2. Small animals like rats will die after drinking river water
3. The increased microbial activity releases micro-nutrients such as iron
4. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen

Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the following all the four parts labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified? [Figure]

1. A Epidermal cell, B Subsidiary cell, C Stomatal aperture, D Guard cell
2. A Subsidiary cell, B Epidermal cell, C Guard cell, D Stomatal aperture
3. A Guard cell, B Stomatal aperture, C Subsidiary cell, D Epidermal cell
4. A Epidermal cell, B Guard cell, C Stomatal aperture, D Subsidiary cell

In which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are correctly stated?

1. Humans :- Kidneys, sebaceous glands and tear glands
2. Earthworm :- Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia
3. Cockroach :- Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca
4. Frog :- Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium

Crocodile and penguin are similar to whale and dogfish in which one of the following features?

1. Possess a solid single stranded central nervous system
2. Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch
3. Possess bony skeleton
4. Have gill slits at some stage

Fastest distribution of some injectable material/medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting it into the

1. muscles
2. arteries
3. veins
4. lymph vessels

Given below are four statements (i – iv) regarding human blood circulatory system. (i) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins. (ii) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced. (iii) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system. (iv) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting. Which two of the above statements are correct?

1. (i) and (iv)
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (iii) and (iv)

The haemoglobin content per 100 mL of blood of a normal healthy human adult is

1. 5–11 g
2. 25–30 g
3. 17–20 g
4. 12–16 g

Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function.

1. array|l|l|l| Structure & Location & Function \ Eustachian tube & Anterior part of internal ear & Equalises air pressure on either side of tympanic membrane \ array
2. array|l|l|l| Structure & Location & Function \ Cerebellum & Midbrain & Controls respiration and gastric secretions \ array
3. array|l|l|l| Structure & Location & Function \ Hypothalamus & Forebrain & Controls body temperature, urge for eating and drinking \ array
4. array|l|l|l| Structure & Location & Function \ Blind spot & Near the place where optic nerve leaves the eye & Rods and cones are present but inactive here \ array

Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of

1. Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
2. Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
3. Relaxin from placenta
4. Estrogen from placenta

In human female the blastocyst

1. gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation
2. gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation
3. gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells
4. forms placenta even before implantation

Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes?

1. Liver
2. Pancreas
3. Salivary glands
4. Male accessory glands

Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in two statements.

1. C - (i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical, D - (i) mutations, (ii) multiplication
2. D - (i) small variations, (ii) survival, A - (i) convergent
3. A - (i) convergent, B - (i) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides
4. B - (i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids, C - (i) rudimentary, (ii) anatomical

The most apparent changes during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens are traced in

1. Remarkable increase in the brain size
2. Walking upright
3. Loss of body hair
4. Shortening of the jaws

Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers?

1. Computed tomography (CT)
2. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
3. Histopathological studies
4. Radiography (X-ray)

A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when

1. the parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs.
2. the trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins
3. the sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen
4. the microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs.

In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector / vectors –

1. B and D only
2. A and C only
3. A, B and D only
4. A only

Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological procedures?

1. Insulin
2. Morphine
3. Nicotine
4. Quinine

Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description?

1. Structure Tibia and fibula, Description Both form parts of knee joint
2. Structure Shoulder joint and elbow joint, Description Ball and socket type of joint
3. Structure Cartilage and cornea, Description No blood supply but do require oxygen for respiratory need
4. Structure Premolars and molars, Description 20 in all and 3-rooted

If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen?

1. The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently.
2. The pH of stomach will fall abruptly.
3. Steapsin will be more effective.
4. Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones.

Jaundice is a disorder of

1. excretory system
2. skin and eyes
3. digestive system
4. circulatory system