AIPMT 2011 (Mains)

The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g cm-3. In a system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be

1. 0.04
2. 0.4
3. 40
4. 400

A particle covers half of its total distance with speed v1 and the rest half distance with speed v2. Its average speed during the complete journey is

1. v1+v22
2. v1v2v1+v2
3. 2v1v2v1+v2
4. v12v22v12+v22

A projectile is fired at an angle of 45 with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point as seen from the point of projection, is

1. 45
2. 60
3. -1 ( 12 )
4. -1 ( 32 )

A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2 m s-1. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is = 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it, taking g = 10 m s-2, is

1. 0.4 m
2. 1.2 m
3. 0.6 m
4. zero

A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to a mass of 3m moving vertically upwards (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the combination is

1. 32v i + 14v j
2. 14v i + 32v j
3. 13v i + 23v j
4. 23v i + 13v j

A small mass attached to a string rotates on a frictionless table top as shown. If the tension in the string is increased by pulling the string causing the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will [figure]

1. decrease by a factor of 2
2. remain constant
3. increase by a factor of 2
4. increase by a factor of 4

A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the radius of the earth are, respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth, is

1. 2GMR2
2. 2GMR
3. 2gMR2
4. 2gR2

A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point situated at a2 distance from the centre, will be :

1. GMa
2. 2GMa
3. 3GMa
4. 4GMa

A mass of diatomic gas ( = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its temperature rises from 27 to 927 . The pressure of the gas in the final state is

1. 8 atm
2. 28 atm
3. 68.7 atm
4. 256 atm

Two particles are oscillating along two close parallel straight lines side by side, with the same frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when their displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean positions of the two particles lie on a straight line perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The phase difference is

1. 6
2. 0
3. 2 3

Two identical piano wires, kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be

1. 0.01
2. 0.02
3. 0.03
4. 0.04

Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and AC, 2a. D and E are the mid points of BC and CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is [figure]

1. 3qQ4 0 a
2. 3qQ8 0 a
3. qQ4 0 a
4. zero

The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), all in metres in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/metre, is

1. 8 along negative X-axis
2. 8 along positive X-axis
3. 16 along negative X-axis
4. 16 along positive X-axis

In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point B is [figure]

1. +1 V
2. -1 V
3. +2 V
4. -2 V

A galvanometer of resistance, G, is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is

1. G(S+G)
2. S2(S+G)
3. ( SGS+G )
4. G2(S+G)

Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is

1. 0 qf2 R
2. 0 qf2R
3. 0 q2fR
4. 0 q2 fR

A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current I1 at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience [figure]

1. a net attractive force towards the conductor
2. a net repulsive force away from the conductor
3. a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane
4. a net torque acting downward normal to horizontal plane

A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4 J T-1 is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet is in stable equilibrium when the potential energy is

1. 0.064 J
2. -0.064 J
3. zero
4. -0.082 J

The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is [figure]

1. V0 3
2. V0
3. V0 2
4. V02

A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be

1. 2.0 A
2. 4.0 A
3. 8.0 A
4. 20 13 A

A thin prism of angle 15 made of glass of refractive index 1 = 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass of refractive index 2 = 1.75. The combination of the prisms produces dispersion without deviation. The angle of the second prism should be

1. 5
2. 7
3. 10
4. 12

A converging beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed through the lens the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meet will move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is

1. 5 cm
2. -10 cm
3. 20 cm
4. -30 cm

The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectron emission is nearly

1. 1 V
2. 2 V
3. 3 V
4. 5 V

An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted illuminates a photosensitive material having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the photoelectron is 10 V, then the value of n is

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr's atomic model?

1. 0.65 eV
2. 1.9 eV
3. 11.1 eV
4. 13.6 eV

A Zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is [figure]

1. 5 mA
2. 10 mA
3. 15 mA
4. 20 mA

In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased, are [figure]

1. (A), (B) and (D)
2. (C) only
3. (C) and (A)
4. (B) and (D)

Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 1016 m-3. Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 1022 m-3. The doped semiconductor is of

1. p-type having electron concentration ne = 5 109 m-3
2. n-type with electron concentration ne = 5 1022 m-3
3. p-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 1010 m-3
4. n-type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 1023 m-3

A thermocouple of negligible resistance produces an e.m.f. of 40 / C in the linear range of temperature. A galvanometer of resistance 10 ohm whose sensitivity is 1 /division, is employed with the thermocouple. The smallest value of temperature difference that can be detected by the system will be

1. 1
2. 0.5
3. 0.1
4. 0.25

Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0, the number of P species is 4N0 and that of Q is N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute whereas that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the sample would be

1. 2N0
2. 3N0
3. 9N02
4. 5N02

Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following ?

1. 44 g CO2
2. 48 g O3
3. 8 g H2
4. 64 g SO2

According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least energetic photon ?

1. n = 6 to n = 1
2. n = 5 to n = 4
3. n = 6 to n = 5
4. n = 5 to n = 3

What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV?

1. -5.1 eV
2. -10.2 eV
3. +2.55 eV
4. +10.2 eV

Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Consider the following processes : array|l|c| & H (kJ/mol) \ 12A B & +150 \ 3B 2C + D & -125 \ E + A 2D & +350 \ array For B + D E + 2C, H will be

1. 525 kJ/mol
2. -175 kJ/mol
3. -325 kJ/mol
4. 325 kJ/mol

In qualitative analysis, the metals of group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating them as chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until the Cl- concentration is 0.10 M. What will the concentrations of Ag+ and Pb2+ be at equilibrium ? ( Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 10-10, Ksp for PbCl2 = 1.7 10-5)

1. [Ag+] = 1.8 10-7 M, [ Pb2+] = 1.7 10-6 M
2. [Ag+] = 1.8 10-11 M, [ Pb2+] = 8.5 10-5 M
3. [Ag+] = 1.8 10-9 M, [ Pb2+] = 1.7 10-3 M
4. [Ag+] = 1.8 10-11 M, [ Pb2+] = 1.7 10-4 M

Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

The IUPAC name of the following compound is [figure]

1. trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
2. cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
3. trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
4. cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

Consider the reactions. (i) (CH3)2CH-CH2Br C2H5OH (CH3)2CH-CH2OC2H5 + HBr (ii) (CH3)2CH-CH2Br C2H5O- (CH3)2CH-CH2OC2H5 + Br- The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively

1. SN1 and SN2
2. SN1 and SN1
3. SN2 and SN2
4. SN2 and SN1

Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II and select the suitable option using the code given below.

1. (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
2. (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
3. (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
4. (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)

The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds: [figure]

1. III > II > I
2. II > I > III
3. I > III > II
4. I > II > III

An organic compound A on treatment with NH3 gives B, which on heating gives C. C when treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH produces ethyl amine. Compound A is

1. CH3COOH
2. CH3CH2CH2COOH
3. [figure]
4. CH3CH2COOH

Which of the following compounds is most basic?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

1. Vitamin B complex
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin E
4. Vitamin A

Which of the statements about "Denaturation" given below are correct?

1. B and C
2. A and C
3. A and B
4. A, B and C

A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86 C/m, the freezing point of the solution will be

1. -0.18 C
2. -0.54 C
3. -0.36 C
4. -0.24 C

200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The osmotic pressure of this solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 10-3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar mol-1 K-1)

1. 51022 g mol-1
2. 122044 g mol-1
3. 31011 g mol-1
4. 61038 g mol-1

A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I- ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35 C. E for Fe3+/Fe2+ is +0.77 V and E for I2/2I- = 0.536 V. The favourable redox reaction is

1. I2 will be reduced to I-
2. there will be no redox reaction
3. I- will be oxidised to I2
4. Fe2+ will be oxidised to Fe3+

The rate of the reaction: 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2 can be written in three ways. -d[N2O5]dt = k [N2O5] d[NO2]dt = k' [N2O5]; d[O2]dt = k'' [N2O5] The relationship between k and k' and between k and k'' are

1. k' = 2k; k'' = k
2. k' = 2k; k'' = k/2
3. k' = 2k; k'' = 2k
4. k' = k; k'' = k

The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is

1. mol L-1 s-1
2. L mol-1 s-1
3. L2 mol-2 s-1
4. s-1

The half-life of a substance in a certain enzyme-catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from 1.28 mg L-1 to 0.04 mg L-1 is

1. 414 s
2. 552 s
3. 690 s
4. 276 s

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution.
2. NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium silicate.
3. Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH to give Al(OH)3.
4. NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3.

Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?

1. SnO2
2. CaO
3. SiO2
4. CO2

The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following presents the correct description?

1. O2-, O22- – Both diamagnetic
2. O2+, O2 – Both paramagnetic
3. O, O22- – Both paramagnetic
4. O+, O22- – Both paramagnetic

Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C–O bond?

1. Cr(CO)6
2. Fe(CO)5
3. [Mn(CO)6]+
4. [V(CO)6]-

Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour? (At. No. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)

1. [Cr(NH3)6]3+
2. [Co(NH3)6]3+
3. [Zn(NH3)6]2+
4. [Ti(NH3)6]3+

A bubble of air is underwater at temperature 15 and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the surface where the temperature is 25 and the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the volume of the bubble?

1. Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6.
2. Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1.
3. Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70.
4. Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5.

Match List-I with List-II for the compositions of substances and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
2. (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
3. (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
4. (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion (Y-) will be

1. 275.1 pm
2. 322.5 pm
3. 241.5 pm
4. 165.7 pm

The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag.

1. Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) 2Fe(l) + 3CO2(g)
2. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
3. CaO(s) + SiO2(s) CaSiO3(s)
4. 2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO(g)

Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?

1. Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
2. Increase in mass from inside only
3. Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory.
4. Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally.

The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom of organisms as that of

1. Taenia, a tapeworm
2. Wuchereria, a filarial worm
3. Rhizopus, a mould
4. Ascaris, a round worm.

Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit because

1. female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds.
2. female gametophyte lacks archegonia.
3. megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat.
4. embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte.

Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong. The two wrong statements together are

1. A and C
2. A and D
3. B and C
4. A and B.

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?

1. Penicillium – conidia
2. Water hyacinth – runner
3. Bryophyllum – leaf buds
4. Agave – bulbils

Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in

1. Calotropis
2. neem
3. China rose
4. Alstonia.

Sweet potato is homologous to

1. potato
2. Colocasia
3. ginger
4. turnip.

At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their

1. satellites
2. secondary constrictions
3. kinetochores
4. centromeres.

In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have

1. thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts
2. thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts
3. thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts
4. thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts.

In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

1. outer membrane
2. inner membrane
3. intermembrane space
4. matrix

In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into

1. embryo sac
2. ovule
3. endosperm
4. pollen sac.

What is common between vegetative reproduction and apomixis?

1. Both are applicable to only dicot plants
2. Both bypass the flowering phase
3. Both occur round the year
4. Both produce progeny identical to the parent.

Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child?

1. only one Y chromosome
2. only one X chromosome
3. one X and one Y chromosome
4. two X chromosomes

Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing:

1. the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
2. between two genotypes with dominant trait
3. between two F1 hybrids
4. between two genotypes with recessive trait

The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a:

1. Viroid
2. Bacterium
3. Fungus
4. Bacterial virus

Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B): “A drug used for (A) patients is obtained from a species of the organism (B) .” The one correct option for the two blanks is:

1. A Organ-transplant, B Trichoderma
2. A AIDS, B Pseudomonas
3. A Swine flu, B Monascus
4. A Heart, B Penicillium

Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic farming. Which of these statements are correct?

1. (B) and (C) only
2. (B), (C) and (D)
3. (C) and (D) only
4. (A) and (B) only

Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct?

1. Acetobacter aceti – acetic acid
2. Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid
3. Aspergillus niger – citric acid
4. Yeast – statins

The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:

1. dt/dN = Nr ( K-NK )
2. dN/dt = rN ( K-NK )
3. dN/dt = rN ( N-KN )
4. dN/dt = rN

Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same time?

1. Lion
2. Frog
3. Goat
4. Sparrow

Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to:

1. Xeric conditions
2. Excessive wet conditions
3. Highly dry conditions
4. Medium water conditions

The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called

1. Fragmentation
2. Catabolism
3. Mineralisation
4. Humification

Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks : (A) Bears go into (1) during winter to (2) cold weather. (B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents (3) human population. (C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of (4) . (D) An area with high levels of species richness is known as (5) . Which of the following options gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements ?

1. (1) - aestivation, (2) - escape, (3) - stable, (4) - mutualism
2. (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, (5) - biodiversity park
3. (1) - hibernation, (2) - escape, (3) - expanding, (5) - hot spot
4. (3) - stable, (4) - commensalism, (5) - marsh

Biodiversity of a geographical region represents :

1. The diversity in the organisms living in the region
2. Species endemic to the region
3. Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region
4. Endangered species found in the region

Some vascular bundles are described as open because these :

1. are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem
2. are not surrounded by pericycle
3. possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem
4. are surrounded by pericycle but no endodermis

Function of companion cells is :

1. Providing water to phloem
2. Loading of sucrose into sieve elements
3. Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by passive transport
4. Providing energy to sieve elements for active transport

Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system ?

1. Vacuole
2. Lysosome
3. Golgi complex
4. Peroxisome

The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function. [Figure]

1. Part (B) : Inner membrane – forms infoldings called cristae
2. Part (C) : Cristae – possess single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes
3. Part (A) : Matrix – major site for respiratory chain enzymes
4. Part (D) : Outer membrane – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting

Examine the figure given below and select the correct option giving all the four parts (A, B, C and D) rightly identified. [Figure]

1. (A) Archegoniophore (B) Female thallus (C) Gemma cup (D) Rhizoids
2. (A) Antheridiophore (B) Male thallus (C) Globule (D) Roots
3. (A) Archegoniophore (B) Female thallus (C) Bud (D) Foot
4. (A) Seta (B) Sporophyte (C) Protonema (D) Rhizoids

Which one of the following figures represents the placentation in Dianthus?

1. [figure]
2. [figure]
3. [figure]
4. [figure]

Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water?

1. Copper
2. Manganese
3. Boron
4. Zinc

Guttation is the result of

1. diffusion
2. transpiration
3. osmosis
4. root pressure

Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are?

1. Iron
2. Manganese
3. Cadmium
4. Phosphorus

"Good ozone" is found in the

1. Troposphere
2. Ionosphere
3. Stratosphere
4. Mesosphere

Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the other three are correct?

1. It is present only in larval tail in ascidian.
2. It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog.
3. It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning.
4. It is present throughout life in Amphioxus.

Consider the following four statements (A–D) related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F). Statements:

1. A-T, B-F, C-F, D-T
2. A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F
3. A-F, B-F, C-T, D-T
4. A-F, B-T, C-T, D-F

Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in

1. human males
2. human females
3. both male and female frogs
4. male frogs

Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?

1. One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
2. One can breathe out air through Eustachian tube by closing both nose and mouth.
3. One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all.
4. The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them.

Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as

1. bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
2. free CO2 in blood plasma
3. 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
4. carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs.

Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below? [figure]

1. Complex QRS - one complete pulse
2. Peak T - initiation of total cardiac contraction
3. Peak P and peak R together - systolic and diastolic blood pressures
4. Peak P - initiation of left atrial contraction only

Uricotelic mode of excreting nitrogenous wastes is found in

1. reptiles and birds
2. birds and annelids
3. amphibians and reptiles
4. insects and amphibians.

The type of muscles present in our

1. heart is involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
2. intestine is striated and involuntary
3. thigh is striated and voluntary
4. upper arm is smooth muscle and fusiform in shape.

The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone

1. calcitonin
2. prolactin
3. adrenaline
4. melatonin

What happens during fertilization in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?

1. Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida
2. Secretions of acrosome help one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida
3. All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails
4. Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one.

About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly called LH-surge) normally occur?

1. 11th day
2. 14th day
3. 20th day
4. 5th day

The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:

1. who cannot produce an ovum
2. who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
3. who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
4. whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms

Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection?

1. Disease Pneumonia, Causative Organism Streptococcus pneumoniae, Mode of Infection Droplet infection
2. Disease Malaria, Causative Organism Plasmodium vivax, Mode of Infection Bite of male Anopheles mosquito
3. Disease Elephantiasis, Causative Organism Wuchereria bancrofti, Mode of Infection With infected water and food
4. Disease Typhoid, Causative Organism Salmonella typhi, Mode of Infection With inspired air

Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is:

1. caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
2. caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
3. not an infectious disease
4. caused by a virus

Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organisms?

1. Recombinant DNA techniques
2. X-ray diffraction
3. Heavier isotope labeling
4. Hybridization

Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This protein:

1. is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.
2. binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it
3. is coded by several genes including the gene cry
4. does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin

Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:

1. White rusts
2. Nematodes
3. Bacterial blights
4. Bollworms

Read the following four statements (A-D) with certain mistakes in two of them. Which are the two statements having mistakes?

1. Statements (B) and (C)
2. Statements (A) and (C)
3. Statements (A) and (B)
4. Statements (C) and (D)

Frogs differ from humans in possessing :

1. hepatic portal system
2. paired cerebral hemispheres
3. nucleated red blood cells
4. thyroid as well as parathyroid

The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of :

1. Squamous epithelium
2. Columnar epithelium
3. Connective tissue
4. Smooth muscle tissue

Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is correctly matched with its function ?

1. Gizzard - absorbs digested food
2. Setae - defence against predators
3. Typhlosole - storage of extra nutrients
4. Clitellum - secretes cocoon

The figures (A – D) show four animals. Select the correct option with respect to a common characteristic of two of these animals. [Figure]

1. (A) and (B) have cnidoblasts for self-defence
2. (A) and (D) respire mainly through body wall
3. (C) and (D) have a true coelom
4. (B) and (C) show radial symmetry

One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice which is poured into the duodenum in humans is

1. trypsinogen
2. chymotrypsin
3. trypsin
4. enterokinase

Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula?

1. 33, 11, 32, 11
2. 22, 11, 32, 33
3. 22, 11, 22, 33
4. 33, 11, 33, 33